Question:
A man buys two horses for Rs.1350. He sells one so as to loss 6% and the other
to gain 7.5%. On the whole he neither gains nor loses. What is the cost of the
horse sold at a loss of 6%. [Ans. (b)
Rs.750]
(a)
Rs.500 (b) Rs.750 (c) Rs. 760 (d) Rs.800 (e) None of these
Solution:
Detailed
Explanation:
First Method: The given question can be solved by method of
“Alligation”. The first horse is sold at a loss of 6%, while another horse is
sold at a profit of 7.5%. On the whole he neither gains, nor losses.
The ratio of the CP
of the horse is (7.5-0) : {0 – (- 6)} = 7.5:6 = 5: 4
Total CP is given as
Rs. 1350, which is the sum of 5 and 4, that is, 9
So, 9 ≡ Rs. 1350
Or, 5 ≡?
= Rs.
750 Ans.
Solution:
First Method
By method of Alligation,
I
(%) II (%)
- 6 7.5
Mean (%)
0
7.5 : 6
Or, 5 : 4
So, 9 ≡
Rs. 1350
5 ≡?
= Rs.
750 Ans.
Second Method: Let
“x” and “y” are respectively the cost prices of the horses sold at a loss of 6%
and a profit of 7.5%.
Given that the sum
of the cost prices is Rs. 1350
So, x + y = 1350
Also given that the
numerical value of the loss is equal to the numerical value of profit. That is,
in the whole transaction, the man neither gains nor losses.
So, 6% of x = 7.5%
of y
or, x: y= 5: 4
9 ≡
Rs. 1350 [Since
total profit is Rs. 1350]
5 ≡?
= Rs.
750 Ans. [5 represents the CP of the horse sold at 6% loss]
Thk u very much sir .now I got the concept of no profit no loss case.more and more pbm on this chapter post sir need.
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DeleteDiscount and marked price pbm plz sir post karenge to it would be better.doubt b rehta hai wahan se.thks in advance sir.
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15200*21/20=15960
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Plzz explain the solution in detail
ReplyDeletesir how to convert 7.5:6 = 5:4
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300rs
DeleteSir ratio 5:4 how sir
ReplyDelete